That doesn’t make any sense whatsoever. How can you say that Gandalf basically claimed the ring from Frodo? He specifically didn’t do it; like Galadriel he passed the „test“ of temptation from using the ring.
That doesn’t make any sense whatsoever. How can you say that Gandalf basically claimed the ring from Frodo? He specifically didn’t do it; like Galadriel he passed the „test“ of temptation from using the ring.
too-good-to-use-Syndrom
Are you gaslighting me?!